I.
As you read this passage (a couple to times at least), what word or phrase captures your attention.

Once you have a word or phase in mind that holds you attention, notice if it bothers you or reassures you.

II.
Romans 3:21-30 (NRSVue)

But now, apart from the law, the righteousness of God has been disclosed and is attested by the Law and the Prophets, the righteousness of God through the faith of Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction, since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; they are now justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed; it was to demonstrate at the present time his own righteousness, so that he is righteous and he justifies the one who has the faith of Jesus.

Then what becomes of boasting? It is excluded. Through what kind of law? That of works? No, rather through the law of faith. For we hold that a person is justified by faith apart from works prescribed by the law. Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of gentiles also? Yes, of gentiles also, since God is one, and he will justify the circumcised on the ground of faith and the uncircumcised through that same faith.

III.
He mentions “law” 5 times, “righteousness” 4 times, and “faith” 7 times.

Initially the phrase, “the righteousness of God,” grabs my attention. He writes that “[God] did this to demonstrate his righteousness …”

What demonstrates “the righteousness of God”?

How do you see “law” or “faith” or both involved in that demonstration?

charles
{ubi caritas et amor, Deus ibi est}